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That is just my opinion but not a fact.
In fact, if you give me any sentence in the NT in the KJV, I can show you it is not possible to literally translate word for word. My Greek prof, Bill Mounce, who has been in numerous translation committees, written commentaries, and the standard first year Greek text book, as well as morphologies, is vehement that this whole idea of “word for word” is a total myth! And, after studying the original languages, I agree completely.
If it was called “functional” equivalence, I would have no issues..
I’ll try to find some links to Bill’s blog about this issue.
As a scholar, reading for personal devotions, a dynamic equivalence, or “thought for thought” really translates the original languages better.
Greek in particular, has completely difffeent grammar and word order than English. It’s like if you said in French ”maison blanc”. Word for word into English would be “house white.” That is not good English! A proper translation would say, “white house.”
Well Greek is completely different with regards to nouns and adjectives, and their placement in the Sentence. You can have the noun subject at the end of the sentence and it’s modifying adjective in the middle or even beginning. We know this because of word endings, which are diffferent for every case and the 3 genders.
The word “the” has 17 different words in Greek, depending upon its function in the sentence, gender and whether it is plural or singular. Of course, we have one word! How can you possible translate that word for word?
German, however, has grammar that is amazingly similar, although the words are different. My study of German helped my Greek, and as I learned German again last year, my Greek helped my German.
Sorry for the technical post! I do get carried away, because people use this classification system to justify that “their” translation is better or purer!
Anyway, the best translation is one that you read! So, whatever works, go for it!
The Myth of the Literal Translation (2 These. 2:3)
I know I have been beating this drum pretty hard recently, but it is so easy. I keep coming across example that clearly illustrate the problem.
The claim is that a translation can be at least somewhat literal, and that by doing so the translator reduces the amount of interpretation (often true) and the informed reader can see the Greek structure behind the English.
Frankly, the “informed” reader should be reading Greek if he or she is able to learn anything of significance from the English structure. But more importantly, I doubt there is even one verse in the English Bible that actually, clearly, reveals the Greek structure underlying it. The languages are just too different.
I am helping my friend Martin read Greek, and we looked at 2 Thess 2 last Wednesday. In the ESV v 2 reads, “Let no one deceive you in any way. For that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction.” What Greek lies behind “For that day will not come”?
Nothing.
The phrase “For that day will not come” was inserted to help the reader understand. It is an acceptable practice, but not one that could possibly be called “literal.” The CSB does the same thing, although it has invented another phrase for its translation method: “optimal equivalence” (not formal or functional).
The NASB is more transparent (also KJV). “Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction.” The italics show the inserted words."
This is from his Monday morning blogs:
https://www.billmounce.com/blogs/monday-with-mounce?page=3
They are mostly technical but very interesting for me to keep in contact with my Greek prof!
But, something I am recently learning...some "words" in the original text was translated as close to the time it was translated.
In other words, the word "tetõn, which translates closer to "craftsman" was translated as "carpenter".(as one person put it in the bible study I am doing right now) the translators probably related it to words that were close in their language. Carpenter was popular in the world at the time.
But, there was little wood in Isreal during the time of Jesus. Stone was. So, it is possible for Joseph to have been a stone mason. This might have been what he taught Jesus.
This brings up how many words and/or phrases were translated to fit THEIR understanding. This was mainly the King James Version, released in 1622. BTW, Shakespeare was in his mind 40's...and how many people have you heard say, "No matter what I do, I can't understand Shakespeare." Very outdated...the man was quit "bawdy" (underlying sexual themes). (Some of you didn't even know that word...how can you understand a language that was used 400 years ago?)
So, having many translations available can be to your advantage...but, very expensive. A way around this, the app biblegateway.com.
Many translations here. Even an Orthadox Version.
Just my opinion.
Thanks to you 2 knowledgeable ladies .
More than 60 English-language versions are available. We can divide them into three broad types: word-for-word, meaning-to-meaning (also called thought-for-thought) and paraphrased. Usually a particular Bible version will explain, on its introductory pages, which approach was used in preparing it.
Regardless of the Bible version you choose, the most important factor is that you actually use it. A Bible should be considered an investment in which a little more expense up front will pay off in the long run.
Although more expensive, a higher-quality, leather-bound Bible will last years longer than a hardbound or paperback volume and should become a lifelong companion.
Based on my readings I thought there were word for word but based on your personal experience I was wrong .
However, it true some translations try to follow word for word, like the KJV. However, it is not possible to actually do it.
But that doesn’t mean that modern or older translations are not reliable! They are. Just not in the way people think they are!